In a topological space, let be a sequence of points, another point, and assume the following holds: all subsequences of have a subsubsequence converging to . Then, converges to .
Indeed, if this were not the case, there would exist an open set containing but not infinitely many of the s, and no subsequence of those infinitely many s can converge to .
Convergence in almost surely implies convergence in probability.
(Not indeeded here.)
If is a sequence of random variables, another one (all on the same space), and any subsequence has a subsubsequence converging almost surely to , then converges itself in proba to .
Indeed,
Convergence almost surely is not topological:
The typewriter sequence is an example of a sequence of random variables that satisfy that any subsequence has a subsubsequence converging almost surely to zero. But it does not itself converge almost surely to zero. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pointwise_convergence#Almost_everywhere_convergence.
And now I realize this is already covered by wikipedia, so it will just serve as a reminder. The important part for me is that Fact 3 which is often an exercise, and often proved in an ad-hoc manner (as far as I have seen), actually decomposes into two very much independent parts, Fact 1 and Fact 2.